Autonomous aldosterone secretion — most common surgically correctable hypertension; suspect in HTN with hypokalemia.
Also known as: primary hyperaldosteronism, Conn syndrome, aldosterone-producing adenoma, bilateral adrenal hyperplasia, PA
Overview
Inappropriate, autonomous aldosterone production by the adrenal cortex, resulting in hypertension, suppressed plasma renin, and (often) hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis. Most common surgically correctable cause of hypertension.
Epidemiology
Prevalence in hypertension is much higher than historically appreciated — estimated 5-13% of all hypertensive patients and up to 20% of patients with resistant hypertension. Bilateral adrenal hyperplasia (idiopathic hyperaldosteronism) accounts for ~60% and aldosterone-producing adenomas ~30%.
Try two board-style Primary Hyperaldosteronism questions
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Question 1EndocrineMedium
A 45-year-old female has hypertension, spontaneous hypokalemia (K+ 2.8), and metabolic alkalosis. Plasma aldosterone is 38 ng/dL with suppressed renin (aldosterone-to-renin ratio (ARR) 58). 24-hour urinary aldosterone remains elevated after salt loading. CT adrenals is normal. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
AFludrocortisone therapy
BEmpiric spironolactone
CAdrenal venous sampling
DMRI adrenals
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: C — Adrenal venous sampling
AFludrocortisone therapy
BEmpiric spironolactone
CAdrenal venous sampling✓
DMRI adrenals
Why Adrenal venous sampling is correct
Primary hyperaldosteronism has been confirmed biochemically (aldosterone suppression test positive with elevated 24-hour urinary aldosterone after salt loading)
CT adrenals being normal does NOT exclude unilateral adenoma — CT misses 20–40% of adenomas under 1 cm
Adrenal venous sampling (AVS) is the gold standard to lateralize disease before surgery
Lateralization index over 4:1 = unilateral disease → laparoscopic adrenalectomy, which is curative in 50% and improves blood pressure in 90%
Lateralization index under 3:1 = bilateral hyperplasia → lifetime spironolactone or eplerenone
AVS should be performed at centers with expertise
Why the others are wrong
A) Fludrocortisone therapy — a mineralocorticoid; would worsen aldosterone excess and hypokalemia; not a treatment for primary hyperaldosteronism
B) Empiric spironolactone — appropriate for bilateral hyperplasia, but lateralization must first be established to determine whether surgery is indicated
D) MRI adrenals — MRI is not superior to CT for adrenal adenoma detection and is not the standard next step once CT is negative and biochemical confirmation is complete; AVS is indicated
Question 2EndocrineEasy
A 45-year-old female has hypertension, muscle weakness, and spontaneous hypokalemia (K+ 2.9 mEq/L). Aldosterone-to-renin ratio is 42. CT shows a 1.2 cm right adrenal nodule. Primary hyperaldosteronism is confirmed biochemically. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step before adrenalectomy?
ARight adrenalectomy based on CT findings
BMRI of the adrenal glands
CAdrenal venous sampling
DSpironolactone monotherapy
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: C — Adrenal venous sampling
ARight adrenalectomy based on CT findings
BMRI of the adrenal glands
CAdrenal venous sampling✓
DSpironolactone monotherapy
Why Adrenal venous sampling is correct
Once primary hyperaldosteronism is confirmed biochemically and surgery is being considered, adrenal venous sampling (AVS) is the gold standard for determining whether aldosterone excess is unilateral or bilateral (Endocrine Society guideline)
CT/MRI cannot reliably establish functional lateralization: imaging misses small adenomas, and a visible nodule may be a non-functioning incidentaloma while the contralateral gland is the true source
AVS uses bilateral adrenal vein sampling (often with ACTH stimulation); a lateralization index >4:1 indicates unilateral disease amenable to adrenalectomy, while bilateral disease is treated medically
Operating on the wrong (or a non-functional) gland based on CT alone risks persistent hyperaldosteronism
Why the others are wrong
Right adrenalectomy based on CT findings — proceeding on imaging alone at age 45 risks removing a non-functioning nodule and missing contralateral or bilateral disease (premature closure)
MRI of the adrenal glands — adds no functional information; like CT it shows anatomy but cannot prove which gland is hypersecreting (right-concept-wrong-test)
Spironolactone monotherapy — appropriate for bilateral hyperplasia or non-surgical candidates, but abandons a potentially curative resection without first lateralizing (anchoring on medical therapy)
Additional high-yield points
Exception: patients younger than ~35 with marked spontaneous hypokalemia, clear biochemical PA, and a solitary unilateral adenoma on high-quality imaging may proceed to adrenalectomy WITHOUT AVS — so AVS is not mandatory for every patient
Unilateral disease (LI >4:1): laparoscopic adrenalectomy normalizes BP in ~50% and improves it in ~90%
Bilateral hyperplasia: lifelong mineralocorticoid-receptor antagonist (spironolactone or eplerenone)
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Withdraw confounding drugs prior to ARR testing: spironolactone/eplerenone (≥4-6 weeks), other diuretics, β-blockers (false high), ACEi/ARB and dihydropyridine CCB (false low); doxazosin and verapamil are acceptable substitutes
Imaging
Adrenal CT (thin-section) — identifies adenoma vs hyperplasia
Adrenal venous sampling (AVS) — gold standard to differentiate unilateral from bilateral aldosterone production before surgery (CT alone insufficient because of frequent non-functional adenomas and bilateral hyperplasia)
ECG and echocardiogram for end-organ assessment (LVH)
Diagnostic algorithm
flowchart TD
A[Resistant HTN or HTN + hypokalemia<br/>or adrenal incidentaloma] --> B[Screen with ARR]
B --> C{ARR elevated<br/>+ aldo >15 ng/dL?}
C -->|No| D[Primary aldosteronism unlikely]
C -->|Yes| E[Confirmatory test:<br/>saline infusion / salt load]
E --> F{Confirmatory positive?}
F -->|No| D
F -->|Yes| G[Adrenal CT]
G --> H[Adrenal venous sampling<br/>(unilateral vs bilateral)]
H --> I{Unilateral?}
I -->|Yes| J[Laparoscopic adrenalectomy]
I -->|No (bilateral)| K[MRA: spironolactone or eplerenone]
Test for primary aldosteronism in: resistant HTN, HTN + spontaneous hypokalemia, HTN + adrenal incidentaloma, family history, or onset before age 40.
ARR is the screening test — confirmatory testing required (saline infusion, salt loading, etc.). Imaging alone is NOT diagnostic.
ADRENAL VENOUS SAMPLING is gold standard for localization before surgery — CT alone misclassifies many cases.
Hold spironolactone for at least 4-6 weeks before ARR (false negatives).
Aldosterone causes cardiovascular damage beyond what its BP elevation explains — treat aggressively even if BP is normalized by other agents.
Liddle syndrome and apparent mineralocorticoid excess: HTN + hypokalemia with LOW aldosterone AND LOW renin — distinct entities, treated with amiloride.
References
Endocrine Society 2016 — The Management of Primary Aldosteronism: Case Detection, Diagnosis, and Treatment (Funder et al., J Clin Endocrinol Metab 2016)
AHA/ACC 2017 — Guideline for the Prevention, Detection, Evaluation, and Management of High Blood Pressure in Adults (Whelton et al., Hypertension 2018)
AHA Resistant HTN 2018 — Resistant Hypertension: Detection, Evaluation, and Management (Carey et al., Hypertension 2018)
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