Free EOR Practice Questions

Family Medicine EOR practice questions

6 free, board-style Family Medicine End of Rotation questions — each with the correct answer and a complete explanation. No email, no account required.

Mapped to the clinician-reviewed FirstPassPA bank and the 2026 PAEA Family Medicine blueprint. Attempt each one before you reveal the answer.

Question 1CardiovascularEasy
A 58-year-old man with no prior medical history has BP 148/92 mmHg on two separate readings after 3 months of lifestyle modification. He has no diabetes mellitus or chronic kidney disease. Which medication is most appropriate to initiate?
  • AMetoprolol
  • BSpironolactone
  • CAmlodipine
  • DDoxazosin
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: C — Amlodipine
  • AMetoprolol
  • BSpironolactone
  • CAmlodipine
  • DDoxazosin

Why Amlodipine is correct

  • American College of Cardiology/American Heart Association (ACC/AHA) 2017 guidelines recommend thiazide diuretics, angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACEi)/angiotensin receptor blockers (ARBs), or calcium channel blockers (CCBs) as first-line for non-Black patients with stage 2 hypertension (HTN) without compelling indications.
  • Amlodipine is a CCB and therefore falls within the first-line options.

Why the others are wrong

  • Metoprolol — beta-blockers are no longer first-line for uncomplicated HTN unless there is a compelling indication such as heart failure (HF), post-myocardial infarction (MI), or angina.
  • Spironolactone — a fourth-line/resistant-HTN agent, not appropriate for initial therapy.
  • Doxazosin — alpha-blockers are not first-line for hypertension.
Question 2GastrointestinalEasy
A 45-year-old man presents with 6 weeks of heartburn worse after meals and when lying down. He has no dysphagia, weight loss, or anemia. Which is the most appropriate initial treatment?
  • AFamotidine 20 mg twice daily for 8 weeks
  • BOmeprazole 20 mg daily for 8 weeks
  • CSucralfate 1 g four times daily for 8 weeks
  • DMetoclopramide 10 mg four times daily for 8 weeks
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: B — Omeprazole 20 mg daily for 8 weeks
  • AFamotidine 20 mg twice daily for 8 weeks
  • BOmeprazole 20 mg daily for 8 weeks
  • CSucralfate 1 g four times daily for 8 weeks
  • DMetoclopramide 10 mg four times daily for 8 weeks

Why Omeprazole 20 mg daily for 8 weeks is correct

  • Uncomplicated gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) — defined by the absence of alarm symptoms (dysphagia, weight loss, anemia, age over 60 with new onset) — is treated empirically with a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) for 8 weeks.
  • PPIs are superior to H2 blockers for healing erosive esophagitis.

Why the others are wrong

  • Famotidine 20 mg twice daily for 8 weeks — famotidine is an H2 blocker and is inferior to PPIs for healing erosive esophagitis.
  • Sucralfate 1 g four times daily for 8 weeks — provides mucosal coating but is inferior to PPIs for GERD.
  • Metoclopramide 10 mg four times daily for 8 weeks — a prokinetic with significant CNS side effects; not first-line for GERD.

Additional high-yield points

  • Endoscopy and antireflux surgery are reserved for alarm symptoms or refractory disease.
Question 3RenalEasy
A 32-year-old woman has 3 days of dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic discomfort. She denies fever or flank pain. Urine dipstick shows nitrites and leukocyte esterase positive. Local Escherichia coli resistance to trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole exceeds 20%. Which is the most appropriate treatment?
  • ATrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) double strength (DS) BID x3 days
  • BNitrofurantoin 100mg BID x5 days
  • CCiprofloxacin 500mg BID x7 days
  • DAmoxicillin 500mg three times daily (TID) x7 days
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: B — Nitrofurantoin 100mg BID x5 days
  • ATrimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) double strength (DS) BID x3 days
  • BNitrofurantoin 100mg BID x5 days
  • CCiprofloxacin 500mg BID x7 days
  • DAmoxicillin 500mg three times daily (TID) x7 days

Why Nitrofurantoin 100mg BID x5 days is correct

  • For uncomplicated cystitis, nitrofurantoin macrocrystals 100 mg BID x5 days and TMP-SMX DS BID x3 days are both first-line agents.
  • Nitrofurantoin is preferred when local TMP-SMX resistance exceeds 20%, as specified in this case.

Why the others are wrong

  • Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) double strength (DS) BID x3 days — TMP-SMX is first-line only when local Escherichia coli resistance is below 20%; local resistance exceeds 20% here, making it an inappropriate choice.
  • Ciprofloxacin 500mg BID x7 days — a fluoroquinolone reserved for pyelonephritis or complicated urinary tract infection (UTI), not uncomplicated cystitis.
  • Amoxicillin 500mg three times daily (TID) x7 days — has high E. coli resistance and is not recommended for uncomplicated cystitis.
Question 4PsychiatryMedium
A 28-year-old woman has 2 weeks of low mood, anhedonia, poor sleep, fatigue, and difficulty concentrating. She denies suicidal ideation (SI). Patient Health Questionnaire-9 (PHQ-9) score is 14 (moderate). Which is the most appropriate initial pharmacologic treatment?
  • ASertraline
  • BMirtazapine
  • CBupropion
  • DAmitriptyline
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: A — Sertraline
  • ASertraline
  • BMirtazapine
  • CBupropion
  • DAmitriptyline

Why Sertraline is correct

  • For moderate depression (PHQ-9 score 10–19), first-line pharmacotherapy is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) such as sertraline or escitalopram, ideally combined with cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT).

Why the others are wrong

  • Mirtazapine — an alternative often used when sedation or appetite stimulation is desired, but carries more weight-gain risk; not first-line.
  • Bupropion — reasonable as monotherapy but generally avoided when anxiety, insomnia, or seizure risk is prominent.
  • Amitriptyline — a tricyclic antidepressant (TCA); not first-line because of anticholinergic side effects and lethality in overdose.
Question 5PulmonaryEasy
A 55-year-old man with a 30 pack-year history who currently smokes presents for a routine visit. He has no respiratory symptoms. Which lung cancer screening modality is most appropriate?
  • AAnnual chest radiograph
  • BSputum cytology
  • CAnnual MRI of the chest
  • DAnnual low-dose CT
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: D — Annual low-dose CT
  • AAnnual chest radiograph
  • BSputum cytology
  • CAnnual MRI of the chest
  • DAnnual low-dose CT

Why Annual low-dose CT is correct

  • United States Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommends annual low-dose CT for adults aged 50–80 with a 20+ pack-year history who currently smoke or quit within the past 15 years
  • This patient meets all criteria

Why the others are wrong

  • A) Annual chest radiograph — chest radiograph is not effective for lung cancer screening
  • B) Sputum cytology — sputum cytology has poor positive predictive value for lung cancer screening
Question 6EndocrineMedium
A 44-year-old woman with BMI 34 and Type 2 diabetes mellitus (T2DM) has tried diet and exercise for 12 months without success. Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) is 7.8%. Which pharmacologic agent provides the most benefit for both weight loss and glycemic control?
  • ASemaglutide
  • BGlipizide
  • CPioglitazone
  • DSitagliptin
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: A — Semaglutide
  • ASemaglutide
  • BGlipizide
  • CPioglitazone
  • DSitagliptin

Why Semaglutide is correct

  • Glucagon-like peptide-1 (GLP-1) receptor agonists (semaglutide, liraglutide) reduce HbA1c by 1–2% and produce 10–15% body weight reduction
  • This makes them ideal for patients with T2DM and obesity

Why the others are wrong

  • B) Glipizide — sulfonylureas (glipizide) lower HbA1c but cause weight gain and hypoglycemia
  • C) Pioglitazone — pioglitazone lowers HbA1c but causes weight gain and fluid retention
  • D) Sitagliptin — DPP-4 inhibitors (sitagliptin) are weight-neutral but produce only modest HbA1c reductions (~0.5–0.8%) and do not promote weight loss

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Family Medicine EOR practice — FAQ

Are these Family Medicine EOR practice questions free?

Yes. Every question here shows the full vignette, the correct answer, and a complete explanation with no email or account required. A free 7-day trial unlocks the full 5,500+ question bank, all seven EOR rotations, flashcards, and an AI tutor.

Are these questions aligned with the 2026 Family Medicine EOR blueprint?

Yes. They are drawn from the clinician-reviewed FirstPassPA bank, mapped to the NCCPA/PAEA blueprint and this rotation's content areas. PAEA's updated End of Rotation exams take effect July 27, 2026; see what changed on the Family Medicine exam on our blueprint-changes page.

How should I use these Family Medicine EOR practice questions?

Attempt each vignette before revealing the answer, then read the full explanation even when you get it right — the reasoning for why the distractors are wrong is where most of the learning is. Then practice focused, blueprint-weighted question blocks in the app as your exam date nears.

Educational use only. This outline is a study aid for PA students and is not medical advice or a substitute for clinical judgment. FirstPassPA is an independent study tool and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by NCCPA. PANCE® and PANRE® are registered trademarks of the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants.