Correct answer: B — Preeclampsia
- AMaternal age
- BPreeclampsia✓
- CMultiparity
- DTobacco use
Why Preeclampsia is correct
- This vignette describes placental abruption (painful dark bleeding, firm tender uterus, late decelerations in the third trimester).
- Hypertensive disorders—chronic hypertension and especially preeclampsia—are the strongest modifiable risk factor for abruption, acting through impaired spiral artery remodeling and decidual vascular disruption at the placental interface.
- Her BP of 168/104 with 2+ proteinuria meets criteria for preeclampsia with severe features, which carries the highest attributable risk among her findings.
Why the others are wrong
- Tobacco use: A genuine but weaker risk factor (vasoconstriction and hypoxia mediated); its relative risk is far below that of hypertensive disease.
- Multiparity: A modest contributor to abruption risk; two prior deliveries add only marginally compared with preeclampsia.
- Maternal age: Advanced maternal age modestly raises risk, but at 31 she is not advanced, making this the weakest factor listed.
Per ACOG, hypertensive disorders of pregnancy are a leading modifiable contributor to placental abruption; abruption remains a clinical diagnosis, as ultrasound sensitivity is only about 25-50%.