6 free, board-style Surgery End of Rotation questions — each with the correct answer and a complete explanation. No email, no account required.
Mapped to the clinician-reviewed FirstPassPA bank and the 2026 PAEA Surgery blueprint. Attempt each one before you reveal the answer.
Question 1GastrointestinalEasy
A 22-year-old man has 18 hours of periumbilical pain that migrated to the right lower quadrant, with nausea, anorexia, and fever (38.3°C). Exam reveals right lower quadrant (RLQ) tenderness with guarding, positive Rovsing sign, and positive psoas sign. WBC is 14,200. What is the most appropriate next step?
AEmpiric oral antibiotics with outpatient follow-up
BSurgical consultation for appendectomy
CCT abdomen/pelvis with IV contrast
DRLQ ultrasound followed by CT if equivocal
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: B — Surgical consultation for appendectomy
AEmpiric oral antibiotics with outpatient follow-up
BSurgical consultation for appendectomy✓
CCT abdomen/pelvis with IV contrast
DRLQ ultrasound followed by CT if equivocal
Why B) Surgical consultation for appendectomy is correct
Classic appendicitis (Alvarado score 8–10): migratory periumbilical to RLQ pain, anorexia, fever, leukocytosis, positive Rovsing and psoas signs.
Immediate surgical consultation is appropriate when the clinical diagnosis is classic.
CT improves diagnostic accuracy in atypical presentations but should not delay surgery when the presentation is classic.
Laparoscopic appendectomy is the treatment of choice.
Question 2Infectious DiseaseMedium
A 68-year-old woman is 5 days status post open right hemicolectomy. She develops a temperature of 38.8°C with erythema, warmth, and purulent drainage from the incision. The wound is opened, drained, and packed, and a culture is sent. Which organism is most likely to be identified on culture?
AStaphylococcus aureus
BPseudomonas aeruginosa
CBacteroides fragilis
DCandida albicans
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: A — Staphylococcus aureus
AStaphylococcus aureus✓
BPseudomonas aeruginosa
CBacteroides fragilis
DCandida albicans
Why A) Staphylococcus aureus is correct
This is a surgical site infection presenting at the typical postoperative day 5–7 window with purulent wound drainage.
Staphylococcus aureus, including MRSA, is the single most common organism causing surgical site infections overall, originating from skin flora.
It is the best answer even after bowel surgery.
Correct source control (opening and packing the wound) plus culture-directed therapy is the management here.
Why the others are wrong
B) Pseudomonas aeruginosa — a gram-negative organism seen in burns, water-exposed wounds, and immunocompromised hosts; not the most common cause of typical surgical site infections.
C) Bacteroides fragilis — an anaerobe that contributes to intra-abdominal and colorectal surgical infections and is plausible after a hemicolectomy, but as a single most-common isolate it ranks below S. aureus.
D) Candida albicans — a fungal pathogen associated with prolonged antibiotics, parenteral nutrition, or immunosuppression; an uncommon cause of routine wound infections.
Question 3EndocrineEasy
A 32-year-old woman is referred for evaluation of hypertension. Her BP has been 168/104 despite lisinopril and hydrochlorothiazide. She reports episodic headaches, palpitations, and diaphoresis lasting 15 minutes. Exam: BP 172/108, HR 102, diaphoretic; abdomen is soft without bruits. Plasma metanephrines are markedly elevated and abdominal CT shows a 4-cm right adrenal mass with high attenuation on unenhanced imaging. Which of the following is the most likely cause of her secondary hypertension?
ARenal artery stenosis
BPrimary hyperaldosteronism
CPheochromocytoma
DCushing syndrome
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: C — Pheochromocytoma
ARenal artery stenosis
BPrimary hyperaldosteronism
CPheochromocytoma✓
DCushing syndrome
Why C) Pheochromocytoma is correct
Pheochromocytoma is a catecholamine-secreting tumor arising from adrenal medullary chromaffin cells.
The classic triad of episodic headache, palpitations, and diaphoresis combined with resistant hypertension in a young patient is highly suggestive.
Elevated plasma free metanephrines with an adrenal mass on imaging confirms the diagnosis.
Definitive treatment is surgical resection after preoperative alpha blockade (typically phenoxybenzamine) followed by beta blockade to prevent intraoperative hypertensive crisis.
Why the others are wrong
A) Renal artery stenosis — typically produces an abdominal bruit and would not cause elevated metanephrines or an adrenal mass; more often occurs in older patients with atherosclerosis or in young women with fibromuscular dysplasia.
B) Primary hyperaldosteronism — presents with hypertension and hypokalemia driven by elevated aldosterone with suppressed renin, not catecholamine excess.
D) Cushing syndrome — causes hypertension along with central obesity, moon facies, striae, and elevated cortisol, not paroxysmal adrenergic symptoms.
Question 4CardiovascularEasy
A 55-year-old man has sudden severe tearing chest pain radiating to his back. BP is 180/96 in the right arm and 150/88 in the left arm. CXR shows mediastinal widening. CT confirms a Stanford Type A aortic dissection involving the ascending aorta. What is the definitive management?
AIV labetalol and nitroprusside infusion
BEmergency open surgical aortic repair
CEndovascular stent graft (TEVAR) placement
DSystemic alteplase thrombolysis
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: B — Emergency open surgical aortic repair
AIV labetalol and nitroprusside infusion
BEmergency open surgical aortic repair✓
CEndovascular stent graft (TEVAR) placement
DSystemic alteplase thrombolysis
Why B) Emergency open surgical aortic repair is correct
Stanford Type A dissection (involves ascending aorta ± arch) is a surgical emergency with 1–2% mortality per hour without treatment.
Immediate cardiothoracic surgery for repair is the standard of care.
Why the others are wrong
A) IV labetalol and nitroprusside infusion — medical management with IV beta-blocker to lower HR and systolic blood pressure (SBP) is only a temporizing measure while arranging surgery, not definitive treatment for Type A.
C) Endovascular stent graft (TEVAR) placement — thoracic endovascular aortic repair (TEVAR) is appropriate for complicated Stanford Type B dissection (descending aorta only), not Type A.
D) Systemic alteplase thrombolysis — not indicated for aortic dissection.
Additional high-yield points
Stanford Type B (descending aorta only) is initially managed medically unless complicated.
Question 5PulmonaryEasy
A 25-year-old man is stabbed in the left chest at the 4th intercostal space (ICS), midclavicular line. He has respiratory distress, tracheal deviation to the right, absent left breath sounds, jugular venous distension (JVD), and BP of 82/54 mmHg. What is the immediate management?
AChest X-ray to confirm pneumothorax
BNeedle decompression at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line
CCT chest with IV contrast
DFAST ultrasound to evaluate for pericardial fluid
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: B — Needle decompression at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line
AChest X-ray to confirm pneumothorax
BNeedle decompression at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line✓
CCT chest with IV contrast
DFAST ultrasound to evaluate for pericardial fluid
Why needle decompression at the 2nd ICS midclavicular line is correct
Tension pneumothorax is a clinical diagnosis — do NOT delay for imaging
Immediate management: needle thoracostomy using a large-bore needle at the 2nd intercostal space (ICS) midclavicular line or 4th/5th ICS anterior axillary line to rapidly decompress
Needle thoracostomy is followed by tube thoracostomy
Question 6RenalMedium
A 35-year-old man has 6 hours of acute severe scrotal pain and swelling. The right testis is high-riding with a horizontal orientation. Cremasteric reflex is absent. Doppler ultrasound shows decreased blood flow to the right testicle. What is the most appropriate management?
AIV antibiotics and supportive care
BScrotal elevation and NSAIDs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs)
CEmergency surgical exploration and detorsion
DNuclear testicular scan with delayed imaging
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: C — Emergency surgical exploration and detorsion
AIV antibiotics and supportive care
BScrotal elevation and NSAIDs (non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs)
CEmergency surgical exploration and detorsion✓
DNuclear testicular scan with delayed imaging
Why emergency surgical exploration and detorsion is correct
Testicular torsion is a urological emergency
Salvage rate >90% if detorsed within 4–6 hours, ~50% at 12 hours, rare if >24 hours
Management: immediate surgical exploration without imaging delay
Bilateral orchiopexy is performed because the contralateral testis has the same anatomical predisposition
Manual detorsion can be attempted while arranging the OR
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Are these questions aligned with the 2026 Surgery EOR blueprint?
Yes. They are drawn from the clinician-reviewed FirstPassPA bank, mapped to the NCCPA/PAEA blueprint and this rotation's content areas. PAEA's updated End of Rotation exams take effect July 27, 2026; see what changed on the Surgery exam on our blueprint-changes page.
How should I use these Surgery EOR practice questions?
Attempt each vignette before revealing the answer, then read the full explanation even when you get it right — the reasoning for why the distractors are wrong is where most of the learning is. Then practice focused, blueprint-weighted question blocks in the app as your exam date nears.
Educational use only. This outline is a study aid for PA students and is not medical advice or a substitute for clinical judgment. FirstPassPA is an independent study tool and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by NCCPA. PANCE® and PANRE® are registered trademarks of the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants.