Free EOR Practice Questions

Psychiatry EOR practice questions

6 free, board-style Psychiatry End of Rotation questions — each with the correct answer and a complete explanation. No email, no account required.

Mapped to the clinician-reviewed FirstPassPA bank and the 2026 PAEA Psychiatry blueprint. Attempt each one before you reveal the answer.

Question 1PsychiatryEasy
A 28-year-old woman is evaluated 1 week after surviving a serious motor vehicle collision in which a passenger died. She reports intrusive memories, nightmares, hypervigilance, avoidance of driving, and emotional numbness. Symptoms began the day after the crash and impair her ability to work. She denies suicidal ideation and substance use. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management?
  • ABrief psychological debriefing session
  • BScheduled low-dose risperidone at bedtime
  • CTrauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy
  • DSupportive counseling with sleep hygiene
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: C — Trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy
  • ABrief psychological debriefing session
  • BScheduled low-dose risperidone at bedtime
  • CTrauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy✓
  • DSupportive counseling with sleep hygiene

Why Trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy is correct

  • This patient meets criteria for acute stress disorder: characteristic intrusion, negative mood, dissociative, avoidance, and arousal symptoms occurring 3 days to 1 month after exposure to a traumatic event
  • First-line management is trauma-focused cognitive behavioral therapy, which reduces symptom severity and lowers the risk of progression to PTSD

Why the others are wrong

  • Brief psychological debriefing session — single-session critical incident debriefing does not prevent PTSD and has been associated with worse outcomes, so it is not recommended after trauma
  • Scheduled low-dose risperidone at bedtime — antipsychotics such as risperidone are not first-line treatment for acute stress disorder in a patient without psychosis or refractory severe symptoms
  • Supportive counseling with sleep hygiene — non-trauma-focused supportive therapy lacks the exposure and cognitive restructuring components that drive symptom reduction and is less effective at preventing progression to PTSD
Question 2MusculoskeletalMedium
A 52-year-old woman has a 4-month history of pain in multiple locations (low back, shoulder, legs), fatigue, unrefreshing sleep, and cognitive difficulties. Physical examination and laboratory studies are normal. She reports widespread pain above and below the waist on both sides of the body. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
  • AChronic fatigue syndrome
  • BObstructive sleep apnea
  • CFibromyalgia
  • DLate Lyme disease
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: C — Fibromyalgia
  • AChronic fatigue syndrome
  • BObstructive sleep apnea
  • CFibromyalgia✓
  • DLate Lyme disease

Why Fibromyalgia is correct

  • Fibromyalgia presents with widespread musculoskeletal pain, fatigue, unrefreshing sleep, and cognitive symptoms ("fibro fog") for at least 3 months with no underlying disease.
  • 2016 diagnostic criteria: widespread pain index (WPI) at least 7 + symptom severity scale (SSS) at least 5, or WPI 4–6 + SSS at least 9.

Why the others are wrong

  • Obstructive sleep apnea — causes unrefreshing sleep, daytime fatigue, and cognitive complaints, but it does not produce chronic widespread pain above and below the waist.
  • Late Lyme disease — causes intermittent oligoarticular arthritis with objective joint swelling (most often the knee), not diffuse pain with an entirely normal joint examination.
  • Chronic fatigue syndrome — defined by post-exertional malaise as the hallmark feature; the predominant symptom cluster here fits fibromyalgia.

Additional high-yield points

  • Treatment: aerobic exercise has the most evidence.
  • Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is also first-line.
  • FDA-approved pharmacotherapy: duloxetine (serotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor, SNRI), pregabalin, and milnacipran.
  • Avoid opioids and NSAIDs (limited benefit, high harm).
  • Sleep hygiene is an important component of management.
Question 3NeurologyMedium
A 38-year-old man is brought by police after he was found wandering in a park, unable to state his name or where he lives. He appears disheveled and confused. He has a medical alert bracelet indicating he has epilepsy. His blood glucose is 92 mg/dL, and his serum ethanol level is undetectable. Brain CT is normal. After 45 minutes of observation he begins to state his name but remains confused about the day and location. He had no witnesses to a seizure. Which of the following is the most likely cause of his confusion?
  • APostictal state
  • BMalingering
  • CFirst episode psychosis
  • DAcute alcohol intoxication
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: A — Postictal state
  • APostictal state✓
  • BMalingering
  • CFirst episode psychosis
  • DAcute alcohol intoxication

Why Postictal state is correct

  • Postictal state is a period of confusion, drowsiness, and disorientation that follows a generalized tonic-clonic seizure
  • The patient's epilepsy medical alert bracelet is a critical clue to the underlying diagnosis
  • Mechanism: neuronal exhaustion, surges in inhibitory neurotransmitters (gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA)), and transient metabolic dysfunction following excessive neuronal firing
  • Duration is typically 5–30 minutes but may last hours in patients with structural epilepsy, prolonged seizures, or cumulative seizure burden
  • Features include confusion, amnesia for the event, gradual recovery toward baseline, possible focal weakness (Todd paralysis) if the seizure was focal, and incontinence

Why the others are wrong

  • Acute alcohol intoxication — excluded by the undetectable serum ethanol level; the epilepsy medical alert bracelet and gradual recovery toward baseline point to a postictal state instead
  • First episode psychosis — typically includes hallucinations or delusions and does not explain the spontaneous gradual recovery toward baseline
  • Malingering — does not explain the spontaneous gradual recovery observed over 45 minutes

Additional high-yield points

  • Management: maintain airway, supportive care, check glucose, allow recovery, and evaluate for seizure trigger (missed medications, alcohol, metabolic disturbance, fever, head trauma)
  • Electroencephalogram (EEG) in the postictal state may show diffuse slowing
Question 4EENTMedium
A 7-year-old boy presents for a routine dental visit. His mother reports he frequently sips juice throughout the day and brushes inconsistently. On examination, the dental provider notes a chalky white opacity on the buccal surface of a maxillary first molar, with a small adjacent area showing a brown discoloration and a soft, cavitated lesion on probing. The surrounding gingiva is pink and non-tender. There is no fluctuance or facial swelling. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
  • APulpitis
  • BEnamel hypoplasia
  • CDental caries
  • DDental fluorosis
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: C — Dental caries
  • APulpitis
  • BEnamel hypoplasia
  • CDental caries✓
  • DDental fluorosis

Why Dental caries is correct

  • Caries develops when cariogenic bacteria (Streptococcus mutans, Lactobacillus) ferment dietary sugars into acids that demineralize enamel
  • Frequent juice exposure and poor oral hygiene are classic risk factors
  • The characteristic progression is chalky white demineralized spot lesion → brown discoloration → cavitation detectable on visual and tactile probing

Why the others are wrong

  • Dental fluorosis — presents with symmetric, diffuse white striations or mottling from excess fluoride during enamel development, not focal cavitation
  • Enamel hypoplasia — a developmental defect producing pits or grooves in enamel, typically symmetric and present from eruption, without active demineralization
  • Pulpitis — would cause spontaneous or thermal pain and is a complication of untreated caries reaching the pulp, not the initial clinical finding here

Additional high-yield points

  • Definitive diagnosis is made by clinical inspection with probing; bitewing radiographs assess depth
  • Management: referral to dentistry for restoration and caries-prevention counseling
Question 5Professional PracticeHard
A 76-year-old man tells the physician assistant in a psychiatry clinic that his caregiver repeatedly withholds food and takes his money. Examination and collateral information create reasonable suspicion of neglect and exploitation. He is not in immediate physical danger but asks the clinician to keep the concern secret. The clinic is in a state that designates health care professionals as mandated reporters of elder abuse, neglect, and exploitation. Which professional action is most appropriate?
  • AExplain the reporting duty and submit the required protective-services report
  • BPromise secrecy and defer reporting until the patient authorizes the disclosure
  • CDelay reporting until the clinician independently proves each allegation of mistreatment
  • DNotify his primary care clinician and ask them to follow up on the allegations
  • ERefer him to a legal-aid attorney and document the allegations in detail
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: A — Explain the reporting duty and submit the required protective-services report
  • AExplain the reporting duty and submit the required protective-services report✓
  • BPromise secrecy and defer reporting until the patient authorizes the disclosure
  • CDelay reporting until the clinician independently proves each allegation of mistreatment
  • DNotify his primary care clinician and ask them to follow up on the allegations
  • ERefer him to a legal-aid attorney and document the allegations in detail

Why Explain the reporting duty and submit the required protective-services report is correct

  • The clinician practices under a state mandated-reporting statute, and examination plus collateral information establish reasonable suspicion, the threshold that triggers a report.
  • The clinician should explain the confidentiality limit and report through the required channel while continuing supportive care and safety planning.
  • National Institute on Aging Elder Abuse guidance (2023) notes reporting obligations and that clinicians do not need to personally prove abuse before an investigation.

Why the others are wrong

  • Promise secrecy and defer reporting until the patient authorizes the disclosure - Ordinary confidentiality does not override the mandated-reporting duty that applies in this case.
  • Delay reporting until the clinician independently proves each allegation of mistreatment - The reporting threshold is reasonable suspicion, not proof. Investigation is the responsibility of the designated authorities.
  • Notify his primary care clinician and ask them to follow up on the allegations - Handing the concern to another clinician generally does not satisfy a mandated reporter's own duty. The report must go to adult protective services or the designated agency; informing the primary care clinician can supplement it but not replace it.
  • Refer him to a legal-aid attorney and document the allegations in detail - Legal help and careful documentation are useful supports, but neither is the report the statute requires. Protective services must still be notified so the neglect and exploitation can be investigated.

Additional high-yield points

  • Reporting requirements vary by jurisdiction and by the patient's circumstances.
  • Explain next steps transparently and document objective findings and the patient's statements.
  • HIPAA permits disclosures about victims of abuse or neglect to the authority designated by law to receive such reports (45 CFR 164.512(c)).
Question 6EndocrineHard
A 48-year-old man being evaluated for reduced sexual desire has a total testosterone concentration of 215 ng/dL from a sample drawn at 4 PM. He is medically stable, works daytime hours, and takes no opioids or hormonal medications. He has no headache or visual-field complaint. Which study is most appropriate before concluding that testosterone deficiency explains his symptoms?
  • ASerum luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormones
  • BPituitary magnetic resonance imaging with contrast
  • CRepeat fasting early-morning total testosterone
  • DOvernight penile tumescence monitoring in a laboratory
  • ESerum prostate-specific antigen measured today
Reveal answer & full explanation
Correct answer: C — Repeat fasting early-morning total testosterone
  • ASerum luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormones
  • BPituitary magnetic resonance imaging with contrast
  • CRepeat fasting early-morning total testosterone✓
  • DOvernight penile tumescence monitoring in a laboratory
  • ESerum prostate-specific antigen measured today

Why Repeat fasting early-morning total testosterone is correct

  • Testosterone varies with time of day and other physiologic factors. A low afternoon result should be reassessed with an accurate fasting morning measurement and appropriate confirmation of consistently low values.
  • The Endocrine Society 2018 guideline requires compatible symptoms plus unequivocally and consistently low testosterone, and recommends repeat morning fasting testing.

Why the others are wrong

  • Serum luteinizing and follicle-stimulating hormones - Gonadotropins distinguish primary from secondary hypogonadism, but they are interpreted after low testosterone is confirmed on repeat morning testing; they cannot establish deficiency from a single afternoon value.
  • Pituitary magnetic resonance imaging with contrast - Pituitary imaging can be indicated after biochemical classification and additional findings, but is premature before confirming a low morning concentration.
  • Overnight penile tumescence monitoring in a laboratory - Tumescence testing concerns erectile physiology and does not confirm the hormonal explanation for reduced desire.
  • Serum prostate-specific antigen measured today - Prostate-specific antigen may enter a later treatment discussion; it does not diagnose testosterone deficiency.

Additional high-yield points

  • If the morning result is low, establish persistence before labeling hypogonadism; do not treat this afternoon sample as two confirmed morning results.
  • Luteinizing hormone and follicle-stimulating hormone help classify primary versus secondary hypogonadism after deficiency is established.

That's 6. Get 7,200+ more.

Unlock the full FirstPassPA bank — 7,200+ board-style questions, all seven EOR rotations with a focused Psychiatry set, flashcards, and an AI tutor that explains every answer. Start your 7-day free trial — no credit card.

Start your free trial → See today's free question →

Psychiatry EOR practice — FAQ

Are these Psychiatry EOR practice questions free?

Yes. Every question here shows the full vignette, the correct answer, and a complete explanation with no email or account required. A free 7-day trial unlocks the full 7,200+ question bank, all seven EOR rotations, flashcards, and an AI tutor.

Are these questions aligned with the 2026 Psychiatry EOR blueprint?

Yes. They are drawn from the clinician-reviewed FirstPassPA bank, mapped to the NCCPA/PAEA blueprint and this rotation's content areas. PAEA's updated End of Rotation exams are effective as of July 27, 2026 (Surgery transitioned earlier, in 2024); see what changed on the Psychiatry exam on our blueprint-changes page.

How should I use these Psychiatry EOR practice questions?

Attempt each vignette before revealing the answer, then read the full explanation even when you get it right — the reasoning for why the distractors are wrong is where most of the learning is. Then practice focused, blueprint-weighted question blocks in the app as your exam date nears.

Educational use only. This outline is a study aid for PA students and is not medical advice or a substitute for clinical judgment. FirstPassPA is an independent study tool and is not affiliated with, endorsed by, or sponsored by NCCPA or PAEA. PANCE® and PANRE® are registered trademarks of the National Commission on Certification of Physician Assistants; End of Rotation™ is a program of the Physician Assistant Education Association.